In accordance with the easa air ops an airplane with one passenger deck ? [ Certification weather ]
Question 222-1 : 1 emergency medical kits 3 emergency medical kits 2 emergency medical kits 4 emergency medical kits

The commander shall declare an emergency when the ?
Question 222-2 : Calculated usable fuel on landing at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed is less than final reserve fuel calculated landing fuel at destination airport is lower than the alternate plus final reserve calculated usable fuel on landing at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed is less than for 30 minutes flight time calculated landing fuel will be lower than the specified minimum within the ops manual

What is the reason for selecting a suitable take off alternate aerodrome ?
Question 222-3 : To ensure a safe landing can be made in case of emergency after take off when departure aerodrome can not be used due to meteorological or performance reasons a suitable take off alternate aerodrome serves as a stopover for refuelling purposes on long distance flights to ensure a safe landing can be made in case of emergency after take off when destination aerodrome can not be used due to performance or meteorological reasons selection of a suitable take off alternate aerodrome is always required if the planned flight time to destination is greater than 8 hours

What minimum rest period shall be provided before a flight duty which starts ?
Question 222-4 : 10 hours 8 hours 12 hours 6 hours

When must the pilot turn on the navigation lights ?
Question 222-5 : At night at night when aircraft is being towed when flying imc day and night

Which radio frequency can be used while flying in mnps airspace during air ?
Question 222-6 : 123 45 mhz 118 5 mhz 123 5 mhz 243 mhz

An operator must establish procedures and instructions to be used for low ?
Question 222-7 : Taxiing take off approach flare landing roll out and missed approach take off landing roll out taxiing take off landing roll out and missed approach take off and landing

Under easa eu regulation 965/2012 the management system of an operator shall ?
Question 222-8 : Size of the operator and the nature and complexity of its activities taking into account the hazards and associated risks inherent in these activities number of aircraft registered by the aoc holder size of the operator the route structure and specific approval operations specific approval operations

Who shall establish minimum flight altitudes for all route segments to be flown ?
Question 222-9 : The operator the flight crew members the commander the dispatcher

To conduct a visual approach the operator should not use an rvr of less than ?
Question 222-10 : 800 m 550 m 1600 m 2400 m

According to easa air ops the mdh for a category a aircraft circling is ?
Question 222-11 : 400 ft 500 ft 600 ft 700 ft

Ops regulation.according to easa air ops the minimum radio communication and ?
Question 222-12 : One radio and one transponder two radios and one transponder two radios and one navigation equipment one radio one transponder and one navigation equipment

Icao annex 6.according to annex 6 a departure aerodrome can also be used as a ?
Question 222-13 : En route and destination diversion backup diversion take off diversion only take off and en route diversion

Crew protective breathing equipment shall provide protection for the e nose ?
Question 222-14 : 15 minutes 10 minutes 30 minutes 5 minutes

According to easa regulations for commercial aircraft an operator shall not ?
Question 222-15 : One automatic elt or two elt of any type one elt of any type transmitting on 406 mhz one automatic elt and one elt of any type one survival elt and life saving equipment

What do the initials oro stand for ?
Question 222-16 : Organisation requirements of air operations operational route organisation organisation of route operations operational requirements for commercial air operations

In vmc conditions a gpws warning occurs the action to be taken are ?
Question 222-17 : Take immediate corrective action maintain height and deviate 15° look outside and avoid terrain visually maintain heading and climb 1500 ft

In rvsm airspace altitude alerting deviation system threshold is ?
Question 222-18 : + 300 ft + 1000 ft + 100 ft + 3000 ft

Icao annex 6 part i is applicable to ?
Question 222-19 : International commercial air transport aeroplanes international commercial air transport helicopters international general aviation aeroplanes international operations aeroplanes and helicopters

What does the definition of a hostile environment refer to ?
Question 222-20 : A safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface is inadequate overwater operations overhead the open sea areas north of 45°s and south of 45°n a built environment any operations overhead the open sea

An operator with a workforce of 25 full time equivalents ftes should be ?
Question 222-21 : Complex basic medium small

Special categories of passengers scps or persons with reduced mobility prms ?
Question 222-22 : Prms should not be placed in a seat which would restrict any exit path in the case of an emergency prms should not be placed in a seat which would restrict any exit path in the case of an emergency unless accompanied by an able bodied adult prms should be placed in a seat which would be most comfortable for themselves because they have specific requirements prms should always be placed in the middle of the aircraft

Etops en route alternate aerodrome planning minima .an operator shall only ?
Question 222-23 : The planning minima the airport operational minima the operational minima increased by 25% the operational minima increased by 50%

According to easa air ops the mdh for a category b aircraft circling is ?
Question 222-24 : 500 ft 600 ft 700 ft 800 ft

Specific requirements relating to the transport of dangerous goods by ?
Question 222-25 : Part spa subpart g part oro subpart d part fcl subpart a part fcl subpart h

A visual approach is ?
Question 222-26 : An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually providing that he has the necessary visual criteria any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in vmc an approach made under vfr using height and track guidance the circling part of a precision approach

An operator shall manage a flight data monitoring programme for aeroplanes with ?
Question 222-27 : 27000 kg 5700 kg 16000 kg 2000 kg

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with an elt ?
Question 222-28 : Transmitting simultaneously on 121 5 mhz and 406 mhz transmitting on 406 mhz transmitting on 121 5 mhz transmitting simultaneously on 121 5 mhz and 208 mhz

An operator must ensure that cabin crew can communicate in ?
Question 222-29 : A common language english a common language and in english a certified icao language

An operator shall establish implement and maintain a management system that ?
Question 222-30 : Clearly defined lines of responsibility and accountability throughout the operator including a direct safety accountability of the accountable manager a report system for the referent authority a description of the system for the referent authority

Who has the final authority to carry out decisions concerning the specific ?
Question 222-31 : The commander the senior cabin crew member the operator the dispatcher

Flight and duty time limitations and rest requirements.according to easa oro ?
Question 222-32 : 3 hours 2 hours 4 hours 6 hours

During a flight a commander may delegate the conduct of the flight to ?
Question 222-33 : Another qualified commander a pilot licence holder nobody a senior cabin crew member

Long range flights and etops.masps means ?
Question 222-34 : Minimum aircraft system performance specifications minimum airport surety performance system maximum airport surety performance system maximum aircraft system performance specifications

Emergency medical kits must be ?
Question 222-35 : Located on the flight deck accessible to the cabin crew readily accessible for use available in the rear galley away from the passengers

A pilot who has completed a zftt zero flight time training course shall ?
Question 222-36 : 21 days 30 days 60 days 90 days

An aeroplane command course requires a commander to carry out under supervision ?
Question 222-37 : At least 10 sectors 10 hours and at least 5 sectors 10 hours and at least 10 sectors 20 hours and at least 10 sectors

The reported rvr for the initial part of the take off run is below the limit of ?
Question 222-38 : Under no circumstance it is possible to take off it is only possible to take off if the aircraft is equipped with an approved lateral guidance system it is only possible to take off if the aircraft is equipped with two approved lateral guidance systems it is possible to take off only if the commander can visually assess that the actual rvr is at or above the limit
A line check is valid for a period of ?
Question 222-39 : 12 months 6 months 18 months 2 years

A child restraint device crd must be provided for each child on board younger ?
Question 222-40 : 24 months 6 years 36 months 12 months

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