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The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category d ? [ Preparation civilian ]

Question 217-1 : 3600 m 1500 m 2400 m 1600 m

exemple 317 3600 m — Admin .lowest minima for circling .category a 1500 m .category b 1600 m .category c 2400 m .category d 3600 m 3600 m

The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category c ?

Question 217-2 : 2400 m 3600 m 1600 m 1500 m

exemple 321 2400 m. — Admin .lowest minima for circling .category a 1500 m .category b 1600 m .category c 2400 m .category d 3600 m 2400 m.

The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category b ?

Question 217-3 : 1600 m 1500 m 3600 m 2600 m

exemple 325 1600 m. — Admin .lowest minima for circling .category a 1500 m .category b 1600 m .category c 2400 m .category d 3600 m 1600 m.

The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category a ?

Question 217-4 : 1500 m 2400 m 3600 m 1600 m

exemple 329 1500 m. — Admin .lowest minima for circling .category a 1500 m .category b 1600 m .category c 2400 m .category d 3600 m 1500 m.

Ops regulation.during a conventional approach the minimum descent height mdh is ?

Question 217-5 : 2 m 7 ft below the aerodrome altitude 4 m 14 ft above the aerodrome altitude 2 m 7 ft above the aerodrome altitude 4 m 14 ft below the aerodrome altitude

exemple 333 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude. — Admin .icao annex 6 part 1 operation of aircraft . minimum descent altitude mda or minimum descent height mdh a specified altitude or height in a non precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference .note 1 minimum descent altitude mda is referenced to mean sea level and minimum descent height mdh is referenced to the aerodrome elevation or to the threshold elevation if that is more than 2 m 7 ft below the aerodrome elevation .a minimum descent height for a circling approach is referenced to the aerodrome elevation .note 2 the required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position in relation to the desired flight path in the case of a circling approach the required visual reference is the runway environment .note 3 for convenience when both expressions are used they may be written in the form 'minimum descent altitude/height' and abbreviated 'mda/h' 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude.

Long range flights and etops.a polar track is a part of a track which is ?

Question 217-6 : 6 micro tesla 38 micro tesla 10 micro tesla 17 micro tesla

exemple 337 6 micro-tesla. — Doc nat mnps .navigation in the area of compass unreliability.8 5 11 as aircraft move towards the earth's north magnetic pole the horizontal field strength reduces and the ability of the compass to accurately sense magnetic north is reduced it is generally recognised that when the horizontal magnetic field strength falls below 6000 nanotesla the magnetic compass can no longer be considered to be reliable moreover when the horizontal magnetic field strength falls below 3000 nanotesla the magnetic compass is considered to be unuseable .this area of uncertainty around a magnetic pole is known as the 6 micro tesla zone a track is considered as 'polar track' when a part of the track is within this area 6 micro-tesla.

Long range flights and etops.arriving at the point of entry into mnps minimum ?

Question 217-7 : Keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan returns to base immediately carries out a holding pattern keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the current flight plan

exemple 341 Keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan — Keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan

Penetration into the nat mnps airspace is ?

Question 217-8 : Subject to an oceanic clearance subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight scheduled or not not subject to a clearance since the flight is already controlled subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed

exemple 345 Subject to an oceanic clearance. — Subject to an oceanic clearance.

The north atlantic airspace is regulated among other according to ?

Question 217-9 : The icao document 7030 additional regional procedures rules issued by the bordering states document 6530 rules common to the bordering states grouped in document 7050 north atlantic ocean airspace canadian rules because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace

exemple 349 The icao document 7030 (additional regional procedures) — The icao document 7030 (additional regional procedures)

After an accident the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder ?

Question 217-10 : 60 days 30 days 90 days 45 days

exemple 353 60 days. — Admin .cat gen mpa 195 handling of flight recorder recordings preservation production protection and use.following an accident a serious incident or an occurrence identified by the investigating authority the operator of an aircraft shall preserve the original recorded data for a period of 60 days or until otherwise directed by the investigating authority 60 days.

Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of ?

Question 217-11 : 2 3 4 5 2 4 1 3 5 1 2 3 4 5 6

exemple 357 2, 3, 4, 5. — Admin .cat gen mpa 185 information to be retained on the ground. a the operator shall ensure that at least for the duration of each flight or series of flights . 1 information relevant to the flight and appropriate for the type of operation is preserved on the ground . 2 the information is retained until it has been duplicated at the place at which it will be stored or if this is impracticable . 3 the same information is carried in a fireproof container in the aircraft . b the information referred to in a includes . 1 a copy of the operational flight plan where appropriate . 2 copies of the relevant part s of the aircraft technical log . 3 route specific notam documentation if specifically edited by the operator . 4 mass and balance documentation if required and . 5 special loads notification 2, 3, 4, 5.

The lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category b aeroplane for ?

Question 217-12 : Mdh=500 ft and visibility=1600 m mdh=400 ft and visibility=1500 m mdh=600 ft and visibility=2400 m mdh=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

exemple 361 Mdh=500 ft and visibility=1600 m — Admin .lowest minima for circling .category a 1500 m .category b 1600 m .category c 2400 m .category d 3600 m Mdh=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

For a category iii a approach the rvr shall not be less than ?

Question 217-13 : 200 m 250 m 230 m 300 m

exemple 365 200 m. — Amc5 spa lvo 100 200 m.

An operator must ensure that system minima for 'non precision approach ?

Question 217-14 : Ndb facility lowest mdh=350 ft ils facility without glidepath localizer lowest mdh=200 ft vor facility lowest mdh=250 ft vor/dme facility lowest mdh=300 ft

exemple 369 Ndb facility, lowest mdh=350 ft — Admin .at landing two types of procedures exist . non precision approach rnav/lnav ndb ndb/dme vor vor/dme llz llz/dme vdf sra .and. precision approach ils gls mls par . .for a non precision approach we use the word mdh a minimum descent height altitude .for a precision approach we use the word dh a decision height altitude .at mdh a you are able to level your aircraft at the minimum descent height until reaching a specific point wich can be based on time or distance from a facility offering you opportunity to established visual contact with the runway to perform a landing .at dh a you must initiate a go around procedure . .minimum descent height mdh .for an ils approach without the glidepath localizer only 250 ft .for a for a vor/dme approach 250 ft .for a vor approach 300 ft .for a ndb approach 350 ft .for a rnav/lnav approach 300 ft .decision height dh .for ils cat ii 100 ft .for ils cat i 200 ft .for a gls gnss landing system similar to traditional category i approaches Ndb facility, lowest mdh=350 ft

An operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored ?

Question 217-15 : 3 months 12 months 15 months 3 years

exemple 373 3 months. — Admin .oro mlr 115 record keeping . . b the following information used for the preparation and execution of a flight and associated reports shall be stored for 3 months . 1 the operational flight plan if applicable . 2 route specific notice s to airmen notam and aeronautical information services ais briefing documentation if edited by the operator . 3 mass and balance documentation . 4 notification of special loads including written information to the commander/pilot in command about dangerous goods . 5 the journey log or equivalent and. 6 flight report s for recording details of any occurrence or any event that the commander/pilot in command deems necessary to report or record 3 months.

An operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as ?

Question 217-16 : He has carried out at least 3 take offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 90 days he has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days he has carried out at least 3 take offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator under the supervision of an examiner in the preceding 60 days he has carried out at least 3 take offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used in the preceding 30 days

exemple 377 He has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days — Admin . part fcl 060 recent experience . b aeroplanes helicopters powered lift airships and sailplanes a pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers . 1 as pic or co pilot unless he/she has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 3 take offs approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an ffs representing that type or class the 3 take offs and landings shall be performed in either multi pilot or single pilot operations depending on the privileges held by the pilot He has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

The minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single pilot ?

Question 217-17 : 5 ifr flights including 3 instrument approaches carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single pilot role 5 ifr flights including 3 take off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single pilot role 5 ifr flights including 3 take off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single pilot role 3 ifr flights including 3 instrument approaches carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single pilot role

exemple 381 5 ifr flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. — Admin .part oro fc 202 single pilot operations under ifr. . c for aeroplane operations under ifr the pilot shall have . 1 a minimum of 50 hours flight time under ifr on the relevant type or class of aeroplane of which 10 hours are as commander and. 2 completed during the preceding 90 days on the relevant type or class of aeroplane . i five ifr flights including three instrument approaches in a single pilot role or. ii an ifr instrument approach check 5 ifr flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

For a category iii b approach the rvr shall not be less than ?

Question 217-18 : 75 m 150 m 100 m 50 m

exemple 385 75 m — Amc5 spa lvo 100 75 m

A passenger is allowed to carry match boxes .1 on himself/herself.2 in his/her ?

Question 217-19 : 1 4 1 2 3 1 2 2 3

exemple 389 1, 4. — Admin .safety matches or lighters passengers or crew may bring one small packet of safety matches or a cigarette lighter intended for use by an individual when carried on the person .note 'strike anywhere matches' are forbidden for air transport 1, 4.

An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants ?

Question 217-20 : Forbidden authorized providing both children are of a similar stature sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat belt authorized providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt no other particular precautions are necessary authorized providing both children are sitting on the same seat using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat belt if necessary

exemple 393 Forbidden. — Admin .the children are above 2 years and need a seat Forbidden.

Admin .in vfr public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual ?

Question 217-21 : Never if the flight lasts more than 3 hours if the aircraft is a twin engine if part or all the flight is done at night

exemple 397 Never. — Admin .the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot Never.

The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records .1 the training.2 ?

Question 217-22 : 1 2 3 and 4 3 and 4 1 2 and 3 2 and 3

exemple 401 1, 2, 3 and 4. — 1, 2, 3 and 4.

The information to consider for a standard straight in approach is .1 ?

Question 217-23 : 1 and 3 1 and 4 1 2 and 3 1 2 and 4

exemple 405 1 and 3. — Admin .a standard straight in approach is a 'non precision approach procedure' rnav/lnav ndb ndb/dme vor vor/dme llz llz/dme vdf sra .to start the approach we need to know the rvr or the visibility and the minimum descent altitude height 1 and 3.

When a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the ?

Question 217-24 : A locking system to prevent any unauthorized access a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area in case of a blocked door a sealing system which in case of depressurisation in the compartment area allows the maintenance of the pressure in the cockpit for as long as possible

exemple 409 A locking system to prevent any unauthorized access. — A locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.

Corresponding aeroplane category when vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is ?

Question 217-25 : D e b c

exemple 413 D. — Admin .classification of aeroplanes .the criteria taken into consideration for the classification of aeroplanes by categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold vat which is equal to the stalling speed vso multiplied by 1 3 or vs1g multiplied by 1 23 in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing mass if both vso and vs1g are available the higher resulting vat shall be used the aeroplane categories corresponding to vat values are in the table below . 2627 D.

Long range flights and etops.in airspace where mnps is applicable the minimum ?

Question 217-26 : 1 000 ft 500 ft 2000ft 1 500 ft

exemple 417 1 000 ft — If mnps is applicable separation is 2000 ft between fl285 and fl420 as the question specifies between fl290 and fl410 it is rvsm airspace with regards to exam questions you should always assume rvsm unless you are told to ignore it .reduced vertical separation minima rvsm allows the reduction of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying at levels between fl290 and fl410 from 2000 feet to 1000 feet 1 000 ft

Long range flights and etops.in case of total loss of communications if an ?

Question 217-27 : At fl410 below fl 410 at fl 430 above fl 410

exemple 421 At fl410 — Mnpsa manual .12 3 special procedures.12 3 1 the general concept of these oceanic in flight contingency procedures is whenever operationally feasible to offset from the assigned route by 15 nm and climb or descend to a level which differs from those normally used by 500 ft if below fl410 or by 1000 ft if above fl410 .thus at fl410 climb by 1000 ft or descend by 500 ft At fl410

A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at fl 390 the total ?

Question 217-28 : Seats exceeded by 10% seats passengers passengers exceeded by 10%

exemple 425 Seats exceeded by 10% — Seats exceeded by 10%

For a pressurised aeroplane the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen ?

Question 217-29 : The entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft but in no case less than 10 minutes 30 minutes the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13000 ft the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000ft

Admin . 2625

A commander shall not take off for an ifr flight unless information is ?

Question 217-30 : During a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome at or above the planning minima at the estimated time of arrival at or above the planning minima at the estimated time of arrival and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use at the estimated time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

exemple 433 During a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, at or above the planning minima. — Admin .cat op mpa 185 planning minima for ifr flights aeroplanes. a planning minima for a take off alternate aerodrome.the operator shall only select an aerodrome as a take off alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports and/or forecasts indicate that during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome the weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima specified in accordance with cat op mpa 110 the ceiling shall be taken into account when the only approach operations available are non precision approaches npa and/or circling operations any limitation related to oei operations shall be taken into account During a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, at or above the planning minima.

A public address system is required to operate an aeroplane whose maximum ?

Question 217-31 : 19 61 30 9

exemple 437 19. — Admin .cat ide a 180.public address system.aeroplanes with an mopsc of more than 19 shall be equipped with a public address system 19.

A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at fl 370 the cabin is ?

Question 217-32 : 198 110% of the seating capacity 270 150% of the seating capacity 240 one additional mask per seat block 210 one additional mask per seat row

Ops regulation.according to air ops a windshield wiper or equivalent means to ?

Question 217-33 : Maximum certificated take off mass is greater than 5700 kg maximum certificated take off mass is greater than 15000 kg maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 30 after january 1st 2000

Admin .cat ide a 120 equipment to clear windshield .aeroplanes with an mctom of more than 5 700 kg shall be equipped at each pilot station with a means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation

Long range flights and etops.air traffic services may require an aircraft to ?

Question 217-34 : 20° of longitude 10° of longitude 15° of longitude 5° of longitude

exemple 449 20° of longitude. — Nat regional supplementary procedures doc 7030 .2 1 9 2 flights operating predominantly in an east west direction .2 1 9 2 3 the distance between significant points shall as far as possible not exceed one hour's flight time additional significant points should be established when deemed necessary due to aircraft speed or the angle at which the meridians are crossed e g .a at intervals of 10 degrees of longitude between 5°w and 65°w for flights operating south of 70°n and.b at intervals of 20 degrees of longitude between 10°w and 50°w for flights operating north of 70°n 20° of longitude.

Long range flights and etops.air traffic services may require an aircraft to ?

Question 217-35 : 10° of longitude 5° of longitude 20° of longitude 15° of longitude

exemple 453 10° of longitude. — Nat regional supplementary procedures doc 7030 .2 1 9 2 flights operating predominantly in an east west direction .2 1 9 2 3 the distance between significant points shall as far as possible not exceed one hour's flight time additional significant points should be established when deemed necessary due to aircraft speed or the angle at which the meridians are crossed e g .a at intervals of 10 degrees of longitude between 5°w and 65°w for flights operating south of 70°n and.b at intervals of 20 degrees of longitude between 10°w and 50°w for flights operating north of 70°n 10° of longitude.

An aeroplane is operated over water at a distance of 340 nm away from an ?

Question 217-36 : Life jackets must be available for all occupants the regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants life rafts must be available for all occupants

Cat ide a 285

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200 must ?

Question 217-37 : 3 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment 5 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment 7 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment 4 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment

exemple 461 3 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment. — Admin .at least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment s . 2628 3 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment.

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to ?

Question 217-38 : 5 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 4 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 6 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 3 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

exemple 465 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. — Admin .at least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment s . 2628 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to ?

Question 217-39 : 6 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 5 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 7 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 8 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

Admin .at least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment s . 2628

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to ?

Question 217-40 : 7 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 8 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 6 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment 5 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment

exemple 473 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. — Admin .at least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment s . 2628 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

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